The Book

Differences in Interpretation

Keys of the Kingdom of Heaven

The Keys of the Kingdom...
Matthew 16:19
And I [Jesus] will give unto thee [Peter] the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.
Here my father wrote in his Greek notes {link to his notes}:
the Greek really reads "whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall have been already bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall have been already loosed in heaven." Quite the opposite meaning from the KJV. With this KJV reading, Christians control what heaven will do. But Heaven controls the Christian!
(This verse is, of course, the standard Roman Catholic citation for rationalizing the Pope's attempt to control this world, given their allegation that the Pope is Peter's successor. Wildly wrong of course, but that's another rabbit to chase.)

Correct interpretation simply requires looking at the context. Jesus is addressing Peter and the disciples separately; it's not a public discourse like the Sermon on the Mount. It's recorded in the Bible for our understanding of Jesus' ministry on earth, not necessarily our application. Even if you disagree with me that Jesus' earthly ministry was to the Jews, Jesus said many things to the twelve that we would and should never attempt to apply today, like:

Matthew 10:1
And when he had called unto him his twelve disciples, he gave them power against unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal all manner of sickness and all manner of disease.
Matthew 19:28
And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.
John 14:12-13
[Jesus said unto them during the Last Supper] Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father. And whatsoever ye ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son.
So that it's hardly radical for me to hold that Matthew 16:19 means what it says, and says what it means, to whom it was said. This verse is actually one of three similar passages. The other two are:
Matthew 18:18-20
Verily I say unto you, Whatsoever ye shall bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever ye shall loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven. Again I say unto you: That if two of you shall agree on earth as touching any thing that they shall ask, it shall be done for them of my Father which is in heaven. For where two or three are gathered in my name, there am I in the midst of them. [Editorial comment: Dispensationalists would argue this statement authorized the Eleven to choose a replacement for Judas Iscariot to sit with them on the twelve thrones.]
John 20:22-23 [After Jesus' resurrection]
And when he [Jesus] had said this, breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them: and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.
The KJV translation is trustworthy and accurate. However, if you're forcing Matthew 16:18 to apply to Christians today, well, I guess you're forced to attempt a re-translation. Yet there are compelling reasons why, to my knowledge, almost every version renders it as the KJV:
  1. Translation of this particular Greek verb tense is generally done as you read it in the KJV (e.g. the NIV), although it is possibly correct in certain contexts to translate it otherwise. (Interestingly, the usually verbose, cover-every-option Amplified Bible renders it solely as Dad proposes, e.g. "...whatever you bind...on earth must be already bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth... must be what is already loosed in heaven," in all three parallel verses.)
  2. In context (particularly in light of the parallel and related passages such "if two of you shall agree on earth as touching any thing that they shall ask, it shall be done for them of my Father which is in heaven."), the proposed re-translation makes the verses arguably contradictory: after all, if I'm given the keys to a house or care, I'm being given control, not being controlled (although, as a homeowner, I can understand being controlled by the house... ;) Indeed, some folks might even dismiss the whole dispute as 'which came first, the chicken or the egg' argument.
There's an obvious difference in teachings about prayers made during the era about which Jesus taught:
Matthew 18:18-20
... if two of you shall agree on earth as touching any thing that they shall ask, it shall be done for them of my Father which is in heaven...
and those in which we live:
Romans 8:26
Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.
Finally, while some might chide me for "cut and paste" in this interpretation of Matthew 16:18, I merely reply that perhaps the very next verse should be applied to Christians today:
Matthew 16:20
Then charged he his disciples that they should tell no man that he was Jesus the Christ.
These are the very words of Christ to his disciples! But the first church service where my pastor doesn't try to tell people that Jesus is Christ, I'm out of there....

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June 18, 1997